This Sunday, April 20th, Todd was talking about Isaiah 53. As he was teaching I noticed a peculiarity. Every time Jesus suffering and death was discussed it was in the past tense. These prophecies were talking about a man who was to appear 300 years in the future, but his death and payment for sins were being discussed as though they already happened.
In addition, any positive connotation had a present tense. Verse 10: he will see his offspring and prolong his days. Verse 11: ..he will see the light of life...my righteous servant will justify.
I wonder why that is? Is it because God isn't bound by time? Did they write in that manner because an event that was to happen in the future, to their eyes, had already taken place in God's eyes? If that is so, then they too were offered the gift of salvation through grace. As hard as it is for us to grasp the concept of someone dying in our past to save us from sins we are now committing, how much harder would it be to say, 'There is someone coming in the future who has already paid for my current sins.'
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1 comment:
true. .. true! The ways of God are mysterious to man. It's cool though that the future was written about Jesus hundreds of years ago. It's kinda' like BACK TO THE FUTURE- HOLY EDITION!
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